Class 11 Political Science Book 2 ch 3 practice quiz in English part 3 Posted on March 16, 2025March 16, 2025 by Anshul Gupta0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 Class 11 Political Science Book 2 ch 3practice quiz in English part 3 1 / 201. Which of the following cartoons depicts the fear of political leaders towards the Election Commission? A. 'Watch Out!' (RK Laxman) B. 'Adult Vote' (21 October 1951) C. 'Winner' (29 May 1949) D. 'Election in the Air' (17 February 1957) Explanation: The ‘Watch Out!’ cartoon by RK Laxman specifically shows a political leader expressing fear of the Election Commission’s strictness and code of conduct, indicating the Commission’s authority in ensuring fair elections.2 / 202. What does the introduction of the NOTA (None of the Above) option on voting machines signify? A. Voters' dissatisfaction with all candidates B. Rejection of the electoral system C. A mandate for re-election D. Support for a specific political party Explanation: The NOTA option allows voters to express their disapproval of all the candidates in a particular election, providing a formal channel for registering their discontent.3 / 203. What is the current reservation status for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha? A. 50% of the seats for both SC and ST B. Reservation in proportion to their population in each state C. 47 seats for SC, 84 seats for ST D. 84 seats for SC, 47 seats for ST Explanation: As of January 2019, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47 for Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha.4 / 204. What is the significance of ‘universal adult franchise’ in a democracy? A. It limits the participation of citizens in the electoral process. B. It restricts the right to vote based on education and income. C. It ensures that all adult citizens have the right to vote. D. It allows the government to select representatives directly. Explanation: Universal adult franchise is a fundamental principle of democracy, guaranteeing the right to vote to all adult citizens, regardless of their background.5 / 205. What is the minimum quota of votes required for a candidate to be declared a winner in Rajya Sabha elections? A. 50% of the total votes B. A fixed number determined by the Election Commission C. The highest number of votes among all candidates D. Determined by the formula: Total votes polled / (Total number of candidates to be elected + 1) Explanation: In Rajya Sabha elections, which use the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system, a candidate needs to secure a minimum quota of votes calculated using the specific formula mentioned.6 / 206. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the system of ‘separate electorates’? A. It was introduced by the British government before India's independence. B. It was rejected by the Constituent Assembly as unsuitable for India's democracy. C. It allowed only voters belonging to a specific community to elect their representative. D. It was adopted by the Constitution of India to ensure fair representation. Explanation: The system of ‘separate electorates’ was rejected by India’s Constitution makers and replaced with the system of reserved constituencies.7 / 207. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Election Commission? A. Accrediting political parties and assigning symbols B. Implementing election-related policies for the government C. Supervising the preparation of voter lists D. Determining the timing of elections Explanation: The Election Commission’s role is to oversee the electoral process, not to implement government policies.8 / 208. In the 2016 Tamil Nadu Assembly Elections, which party secured the highest percentage of votes? A. INC B. AIADMK C. PMK D. DMK Explanation: The table shows that AIADMK received 40.77% of the total votes, making it the party with the largest vote share in the 2016 Tamil Nadu Assembly Elections.9 / 209. Which of the following is NOT a common suggestion for electoral reform in India? A. Increasing the minimum age for contesting elections B. Stricter control on election finances C. Changing to a Proportional Representation system D. Regulating the functioning of political parties Explanation: There is no major proposal to increase the age for contesting elections. The focus is on reforms like changing the electoral system, campaign finance, and party regulation.10 / 2010. What is the primary goal of the National Voters’ Day pledge? A. To encourage voting based on religious and caste considerations B. To promote the dignity of free, fair, and peaceful elections C. To undermine the authority of the Election Commission D. To support a specific political party or candidate Explanation: The National Voters’ Day pledge emphasizes the importance of upholding democratic values, participating in elections without fear or bias, and respecting the integrity of the electoral process.11 / 2011. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the FPTP system compared to the PR system? A. A party potentially getting more seats than its vote share B. Voters voting for a party rather than a candidate C. Each constituency electing one representative D. Country divided into smaller constituencies Explanation: In the FPTP system, voters choose a specific candidate, while in PR systems, voters typically vote for a political party.12 / 2012. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the Congress party won a disproportionately large number of seats compared to its vote share in the 1984 Lok Sabha elections? A. Winning constituencies with less than 50% of the votes B. The FPTP system C. Votes for losing candidates going 'waste' D. Proportional Representation system Explanation: The Congress party’s victory in 1984 is attributed to the FPTP system, where winning with less than 50% of the votes in many constituencies and the ‘wasted’ votes for losing candidates contributed to their large seat share despite not having a majority of the total votes.13 / 2013. What is the ‘special majority’ required to remove the Chief Election Commissioner before the expiry of their term? A. Unanimous vote by B. Two-thirds majority of both Houses of Parliament C. Simple majority of both Houses of Parliament D. Two-thirds majority of those present and voting, and a simple majority of the total membership of both Houses Explanation: Removing the CEC requires a ‘special majority’ in both Houses of Parliament, which means two-thirds of those present and voting, and a simple majority of the total membership of each House.14 / 2014. What is the main reason for the increased legitimacy of the Election Commission in the eyes of the Indian people? A. Its impartial and unbiased actions to protect the electoral process B. Its close ties with the ruling government C. Its ability to manipulate election results D. Its lack of power to enforce electoral rules Explanation: The Election Commission’s reputation has been built on its consistent efforts to act independently and fairly, safeguarding the integrity of elections and earning public trust.15 / 2015. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the success of India’s election system? A. Inclusivity and representation of diverse social sections B. Peaceful transitions of government C. Dominance of a single political party D. High voter turnout Explanation: While India did experience one-party dominance in the early years, the success of its election system is marked by the ability of voters to change governments, high voter turnout, and increasing representation of diverse social groups.16 / 2016. Which of the following is NOT a reason for electoral reforms being proposed in India? A. To eliminate the need for voter participation B. To reduce the influence of money and muscle power C. To address flaws and limitations in the existing system D. To make elections more free and fair Explanation: Electoral reforms aim to strengthen democracy and voter participation, not eliminate it. They address issues like fairness, transparency, and accountability in the electoral process.17 / 2017. What is the primary role of political institutions and voluntary organizations in ensuring free and fair elections? A. To discourage public participation in the electoral process B. To directly influence the outcome of elections C. To replace the Election Commission's authority D. To act as watchdogs and promote transparency Explanation: Independent organizations and institutions play a crucial role in monitoring elections, advocating for fairness, and raising awareness among citizens, contributing to a more transparent and accountable electoral process.18 / 2018. What is the primary concern regarding the underrepresentation of Muslims in the Lok Sabha? A. The FPTP system's fairness B. The effectiveness of reservations for SC and ST C. The lack of political participation by Muslim women D. The need for separate electorates for Muslims Explanation: The underrepresentation of Muslims in the Lok Sabha raises concerns about the fairness of the FPTP system in ensuring adequate representation for minorities.19 / 2019. In the 2015 Israeli elections, which party secured the highest percentage of votes? A. Zionist Camp B. Likud C. Yesh Atid D. Joint List Explanation: According to the provided table, Likud received 23.40% of the total votes in the 2015 Israeli elections, making it the party with the largest vote share.20 / 2020. What was the initial duration for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies? A. 10 years B. 15 years C. 20 years D. 5 years Explanation: The initial reservation period for SC/ST seats was 10 years, but it has been extended multiple times through constitutional amendments.Please insert your information to see your ranking अपनी Ranking जानने के लिए कृपया अपनी जानकारी भरे NamePhone Number Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz Category: Class 11 Political Science Quizzes in English